Skip to content

A Load Line Meets the Iron

Irodov 3.284DifficultyDifficulty 3 of 5UniquenessUniqueness 4 of 5

Problem Irodov 3.284

A thin iron ring of mean diameter d=50d = 50 cm carries a winding of N=800N = 800 turns with a current I=3.0I = 3.0 A. The ring is cut across, leaving a gap of width b=2.0b = 2.0 mm. Neglecting the spreading of the flux at the edges of the gap, and using the basic magnetization curve of the iron shown in the figure, find the permeability of the iron in these conditions.

The cut iron ring (permeability μ) seen from above, with its winding of N turns carrying I, the gap b (widened for clarity) and the mean diameter d. The closed lines are B.

The cut iron ring (permeability μ\mu) seen from above, with its winding of NN turns carrying II, the gap bb (widened for clarity) and the mean diameter dd. The closed lines are B\vect B.

The given basic magnetization curve of the iron: B in tesla against H in kA/m.

The given basic magnetization curve of the iron: BB in tesla against HH in kA/m.

Given
  • d=50d = 50 cm
  • N=800N = 800
  • I=3.0I = 3.0 A
  • b=2.0b = 2.0 mm
  • the curve B(H)B(H)
  • no spreading at the gap edges
  • HH read to about 0.010.01 kA/m, BB to about 0.020.02 T (assumed)
Find
the permeability μ\mu of the iron

Solution

Step 1The circulation of H round the ring

With no spreading at the edges, the flux tube keeps the ring’s cross-section across the gap, and the normal component of B\vect B is continuous at each face, so the induction BB is the same in the iron and in the gap. In the gap the field strength is B/μ0B/\mu_0; in the iron it is HH, unknown, tied to BB by the curve. The contour along the mean circle runs πd−b\pi d - b in the iron and bb in the gap, and links the winding NN times:

H(πd−b)+Bμ0 b=NI(1) H(\pi d - b) + \frac{B}{\mu_0}\,b = NI \tag{1}
Step 2The load line

Solving (1) for BB, and dropping bb beside πd\pi d (it is 0.130.13 percent of the path):

B=μ0NIb−μ0(πd−b)b H≈μ0NIb−μ0πdb H\begin{aligned} B &= \frac{\mu_0 NI}{b} - \frac{\mu_0(\pi d - b)}{b}\,H\\[2pt] &\approx \frac{\mu_0 NI}{b} - \frac{\mu_0\pi d}{b}\,H \end{aligned}

Numerically, the intercept and the slope (per kA/m, the unit of the curve’s axis) are

μ0NIb=(4π×10−7)(800)(3.0)2.0×10−3=1.508 Tμ0πdb=(4π×10−7) π (0.50)2.0×10−3×103=0.987 T per kA/m\begin{aligned} \frac{\mu_0 NI}{b} &= \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(800)(3.0)}{2.0\times10^{-3}} = 1.508\text{ T}\\[2pt] \frac{\mu_0\pi d}{b} &= \frac{(4\pi\times10^{-7})\,\pi\,(0.50)}{2.0\times10^{-3}}\times10^{3} = 0.987\text{ T per kA/m} \end{aligned}

so the circulation demands, with BB in tesla and HH in kA/m,

B≈1.51−0.987 HB \approx 1.51 - 0.987\,H
(2)
Step 3Where the line meets the curve

The iron’s state must satisfy (2) and lie on the magnetization curve at the same time, so it is the intersection of the straight line with the curve.

The given magnetization curve with the line (gold), falling from 1.51 T on the B axis. They cross at the iron's working point, whose coordinates are marked on the axes.

The given magnetization curve with the line (2) (gold), falling from 1.511.51 T on the BB axis. They cross at the iron’s working point, whose coordinates are marked on the axes.

Read off the figure, HH to about 0.010.01 kA/m and BB to about 0.020.02 T (assumed):

H≈0.26 kA/m,B≈1.25 TH \approx 0.26\text{ kA/m}, \qquad B \approx 1.25\text{ T}

As a test of the reading, the line (2) at that HH gives

B=1.508−0.987×0.26=1.251 TB = 1.508 - 0.987 \times 0.26 = 1.251\text{ T}

which agrees with the BB read on the curve.

Step 4The permeability

With the working point known, the permeability is μ=B/(μ0H)\mu = B/(\mu_0 H). Numerically,

Bμ0H=1.25(4π×10−7)(260)\frac{B}{\mu_0 H} = \frac{1.25}{(4\pi\times10^{-7})(260)}
μ=Bμ0H≈3.8×103\mu = \frac{B}{\mu_0 H} \approx 3.8\times10^{3}
(3)

Reading HH to ±0.01\pm 0.01 kA/m leaves μ\mu uncertain by about 44 percent, so the second figure of the result is only just significant.

Check

The working point lies on the curve independently of the line: the curve passes through 1.191.19 T at 0.200.20 kA/m and 1.291.29 T at 0.300.30 kA/m, and six tenths of the way between them, at 0.260.26 kA/m, it is at 1.251.25 T, the value read. And μ≈3.8×103\mu \approx 3.8\times10^3 sits on the falling side of the iron’s permeability, past its peak of about 10410^4 at the knee, as it must at H=0.26H = 0.26 kA/m.

Remark

The 22 mm gap takes about five sixths of the ampere-turns although it is 0.130.13 percent of the path. With ideal iron (μ→∞\mu \to \infty) the gap alone would set B=μ0NI/b=1.51B = \mu_0NI/b = 1.51 T, and the real iron lowers that only to 1.251.25 T: the gap, not the iron, mostly decides the field. The same construction, a straight line from the circuit against a curve from the material, is how a transistor’s operating point or a magnet’s working point is found.